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QUESTION: Is Jesus Yahweh? If so, did Jesus order people to commit genocide ( Hosea 13:16, 1 Samuel 15:3, Numbers 31:17-18, Ezekiel 9:5, 2 Chronicles 15:12-13) ?
Please answer below
Some Christians claim that the Greek word Kyrios/Kurios is a direct translation of the Hebrew name Yahweh, because the word does not appear openly in the Greek New Testament; instead the word Kyrios/Kurios is used. In essence they are claiming that every occurrence of the word Kyrios/Kurios is a placeholder for Yahweh.
So let us use Christian “logic” and say for the sake of argument that this is true. Now how do we explain the following verse:
Thus Sarah obeyed Abraham and called him lord [kurios] (1 Peter 3:6).
Is Abraham Yahweh?
An article worthy of reblogging.
Critics of Islam have gone so low that they have started malicious attacks on Allah, calling him a ‘deceiver’. When these Missionaries have no legs to stand on, to refute Islamic Doctrine, they resort to lies to degrade Islam. I for one would not even be bothered to write something like this, but due missionary lies I am writing this article to show/prove Yahweh is a deceiver. YHWH admits, says: “he deceives people” and even Prophets in the Old Testament speak of Yahweh being a deceiver. There are 5 verses I will present that YHWH is a deceiver. I will also provide commentary by experts on each verse I present from the Old Testament on what the passages mean.
Yahweh Deceives Verse 1
Jeremiah 4:10 Then I said, “Ah, Sovereign LORD, how completely you have deceived this people and Jerusalem by saying, ‘You will have peace,’ when the sword is at…
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Wow, well done
My apologies for the poor quality of the images taken on my iPhone earlier. These are taken from the invaluable scholarly resource A Man Attested by God: The Human Jesus of the Synoptic Gospels by Dr J.R. Daniel Kirk. Many Jewish figures are called ‘God’ in the Jewish scriptures and other non-canonical Jewish writings, disproving the often made Christian claim (by Richard Bauckham for example) that these titles (and their roles) are the exclusive preserve of God Himself. In the Bible and in the DSS they are not.
Many claim that Joseph is a theophoric-name rooted in the word Yahweh, meaning “Yahweh will Add” instead of “He will Add”. Now we know that the name Yahweh was first revealed to Moses:
Exodus 6:3 English Standard Version
I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac, and to Jacob, as God Almighty, but by my name the LORD(Yahweh) I did not make myself known to them.
If the name Yahweh was first revealed to Moses, and Moses came after the Prophet Joseph, how can Joseph be “Yahweh will Add”.?
And so when the New Testament uses the word “Lord”, it is not clear if it is referring to someone (God, or man) as Yahweh or Adonai. As we know the regular “Lord”/Adonai can not only be used for God, but also for someone who is considered master, superior, King etc. (Like when Sarah refers to Abraham as Lord).
Just to reiterate, the New Testament refers to God as “Lord” (Kyrios). Is that his personal name (Yahweh) or just designation of Lord(Adonai) ?
This not only shows the lack of importance of the name Yahweh, within the early Christian community. It also puts into question, whether the God of the Old Testament was ever called Yahweh in the first place?
If Yahweh is the personal name of God, and more important than any of the other names of God (mentioned in the Bible), then why is Isra-El (and subsequently the name given to the nation of Israel), not utilizing Yahweh in its name ?
Shouldn’t the proud nation of Israel, the nation of God’s chosen people been given the superior name of Isra-Yahu and not using the so-called lesser name of God, El in its name ? A name of God, that I may add is similar to ALLAH, according to Enclyopedia Britanica
Etymologically, the name Allah is probably a contraction of the Arabic al-Ilāh, “the God.” The name’s origin can be traced back to the earliest Semitic writings in which the word for “god” was il or El, the latter being used in the Hebrew Bible (Old Testament).
Keeping that aside, let us examine what modern scholarship has to say on the issue of Isra-el vs Isra-yahu:
2 God also said to Moses, “I am the LORD.(Yahweh ) 3 I appeared to Abraham, to Isaac and to Jacob as God Almighty, but by my name the LORD (Yahweh) I did not make myself known to them.
And he removed from thence unto a mountain on the east of Bethel, and pitched his tent, having Bethel on the west, and Hai on the east: and there he builded an altar unto the LORD, and called upon the name of the LORD (Yahweh).
Many Christians claim that Yahweh is the personal name of God. I find this curious, because the New Testament is devoid of such a name. This shows not only the lack of importance of the name Yahweh , but should make Christians and Jews alike question whether the name Yahweh was ever used for God in their original uncorrupted texts of old?
And to Allah belong the best names, so invoke Him by them. And leave [the company of] those who practice deviation concerning His names. They will be recompensed for what they have been doing.
Was God known by the name Yahweh prior to Moses (Exodus 6:3), or was he not (Genesis 4:26, 5:29, 9:24, 22:14, 27:20, 27:27, 28:20-21)?-Contradiction in the OT
Exodus 6:3 King James Version (KJV)
3 And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by the name of God Almighty, but by my name Jehovah was I not known to them.