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[IslamQA]Does the consensus of the people of Madinah constitute shar‘i proof?

Taken from here:

I have heard that Imam Maalik used to regard the consensus of the people of Madinah as binding proof. Is this correct? If that is the case, then is it regarded as binding proof for the entire ummah?

 

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Ibn Taymiyya on the ‘Hadith about Imam Malik’

 

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Also from Ibn Taymiyya’s The Madinan Way: The Soudness of the Basic Premises of the School of the People of Madina (page 26-27):

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