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QUESTION: Is Jesus Yahweh? If so, did Jesus order people to commit genocide ( Hosea 13:16, 1 Samuel 15:3, Numbers 31:17-18, Ezekiel 9:5, 2 Chronicles 15:12-13) ?
Please answer below
Taken (with notes )from here: https://christianpublishinghouse.co/2018/10/18/john-858-theological-bias-in-bible-translation/
John 8:58 is one of the most hotly debated verses in the Bible, so our investigation begins and ends here.
|UASV||ESV, LEB, HCSB, RSV||NLV||CEV|
|Jesus said to them, “Most truly I say to you, Before Abraham came to be, I have been in existence.”||Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I am.”||Jesus said to them, “For sure, I tell you, before Abraham was born, I was and am and always will be!”||Jesus answered, “I tell you for certain that even before Abraham was, I was, and I am.”|
|NLT||NAB||TEV, GNT||NASB, ASV|
|Jesus answered, “I tell you the truth, before Abraham was even born, I Am!||Jesus said to them, “Amen, amen, I say to you, before Abraham came to be, I AM.”||“I am telling you the truth,” Jesus replied. “Before Abraham was born, ‘I AM’.”||Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am.”|
|John 8:58 American Translation (AT) Jesus said to them, “I tell you, I existed beforeAbraham was born!”|
Technically Moses did, and Moses heard from Yahweh, so Yahweh did, and Jesus is Yahweh, so Jesus did !!! 🙂
9 “‘If a priest’s daughter defiles herself by becoming a prostitute, she disgraces her father; she must be burned in the fire.
This goes against the authentic hadith:
It was narrated from ‘Ikrimah that ‘Ali (may Allah be pleased with him) burned some people. News of that reached Ibn ‘Abbaas and he said:If it were me, I would not have burned them, because the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said:“Do not punish with the punishment of Allah.” And I would have executed them as the Prophet (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said: “Whoever changes his religion, then execute him.” Narrated by al-Bukhaari (3017).
It was narrated from Abu Hurayrah (may Allah be pleased with him) that he said: The Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) sent us on a mission and said: “If you find So and so, and So and so, then burn them with fire.” Then the Messenger of Allah (blessings and peace of Allah be upon him) said, when we were about to leave: “I had commanded you to burn So and so, and So and so. But verily no one punishes with fire except Allah. So if you find them, execute them.”
Narrated by al-Bukhaari (3016)
Taken from here: https://bloggingtheology.net/2016/12/30/27807/
I am reading by two of America’s leading biblical scholars entitled: King and Messiah as Son of God, Divine, Human, and Angelic Messianic Figures in Biblical and Related Literature by Adela Yarbro Collins and John J. Collins – both professors of biblical criticism and interpretation at Yale University.
I have nearly finished the book and I thought readers might like to peruse another extract. The professors describe the historical process whereby Jesus was initially understood to be an agent of God, then after the ascension of Jesus leading to further speculation about his pre-existent status. But a crucial factor appears to be the influence of pagan cults where men who were once human beings were honoured and worshiped as gods. The authors highlight the practices of the Imperial cults as a crucial element in the proclamation of Jesus as God. Here is a snapshot taken on my humble iPhone of page 174 (see note 105 too).
Sh’ma Yisra’eil Adonai Eloheinu Adonai echad.
Hear, Israel, the Lord is our God, the Lord is One.
Jesus has never been recorded as saying “I forgive …” or ” I have forgiven ….”, the same way God does in Numbers 14:20.
Rather in the NT, Jesus has been recorded as saying: “…your sins are forgiven,” in Mark 2:9, Luke 5:20, Mark 2:5, Matthew 9:5, 1 John 2:12,Matthew 9:2. NOT ONCE INSTANCE, does Jesus say I FORGIVE or I HAVE FORGIVEN.
What difference does it make? The latter implies that God has given the authority to forgive sins , like He did to the Jewish priests in Leviticus 4:20.
Therefore Jesus is claiming a priestly status and not a divine one.
[John 8:56] “My Day” does it refer to the Plains of Mamre or in the Future? (Differences in Biblical Commentaries)
Many Christians try to show the divinity of Christ, by equating him with the figure in Genesis 18 , ANGEL OF THE LORD. They refer to John 8:56 “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he saw it and was glad.”, and in particular the wording “MY DAY“. Let us examine the different interpretations of Biblical commentors on this issue:
BLUE = Future
RED=Plains of Mamre
To conclude here, you will see that the MAJORITY of commentaries are referring to a FUTURE observance of Christ, as opposed to Jesus coming down in human form, in Genesis 18.
But as usual in John 8:57 , the Jews twisted the words of Jesus and the Trinitarian Christians are gullible enough to accept their reasoning. In the next post we will see how commentators have understood the Jews were in-fact twisting or misinterpreting what Jesus was saying.
Taken from here: https://bloggingtheology.net/2017/11/22/41936/
Michael Ramsey (1904 – 1988) was the 100th Archbishop of Canterbury. He was appointed on 31 May 1961 and held the office until 1974, having previously been the Bishop of Durham and the Archbishop of York. He was known as a theologian, educator, and advocate of Christian unity. The former Archbishop of Canterbury informs us that Jesus did not claim deity for himself. Most NT scholars would agree in my experience. The book is Jesus and the Living Past (published by Oxford University Press, 1980).