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Jesus has never been recorded as saying “I forgive …” or ” I have forgiven ….”, the same way God does in Numbers 14:20.
Rather in the NT, Jesus has been recorded as saying: “…your sins are forgiven,” in Mark 2:9, Luke 5:20, Mark 2:5, Matthew 9:5, 1 John 2:12,Matthew 9:2. NOT ONCE INSTANCE, does Jesus say I FORGIVE or I HAVE FORGIVEN.
What difference does it make? The latter implies that God has given the authority to forgive sins , like He did to the Jewish priests in Leviticus 4:20.
Therefore Jesus is claiming a priestly status and not a divine one.
Original Zec 12:10(KJV)
And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.
12:10 וְשָׁפַכְתִּי עַל־בֵּית דָּוִיד וְעַל יֹושֵׁב יְרוּשָׁלִַם רוּחַ חֵן וְתַחֲנוּנִים וְהִבִּיטוּ אֵלַי אֵת אֲשֶׁר־דָּקָרוּ וְסָפְדוּ עָלָיו כְּמִסְפֵּד עַל־הַיָּחִיד וְהָמֵר עָלָיו כְּהָמֵר עַֽל־הַבְּכֹֽור׃
Heb 9:22( KJV)
And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.
This passage in the Bible is used by Christians to justify their belief in sacrifice/atonement; that a price has to be paid, blood has to be shed to remove sin from oneself and from mankind. This post will call into question whether Hebrews 9:22 is in line with the teaching of the Old Testament, and by so-doing will bring into question the authenticity of the passage, the authorship of the passage and/or even the validity of adhering to a Pauline doctrine.